PLAYER57832 wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote: GreecePwns wrote:Player does make a good argument about the army power, despite everyones' protests. Sure the governments have a monopoly on violence, but guess who has a monopoly on the governments?
PLAYER refuses to acknowledge that the few corporations which hold strong influence over governments are only able to enjoy that power because the government is the only source of that power.
Because the root of all power is not government, it is wealth.. and the work that creates that wealth.
If the root of all power is wealth, then why is it that wealthier organizations/societies can be controlled or defeated by less wealthier organizations/societies?
For instance, during the Iranian revolution, the religious group took control, although their wealth relative to the competing groups was significantly less. Therefore, your claim that "wealth is the root of all power" is false. But even if you were to say that ""wealth is the root of all power--for most cases," it would still be false. Wealth is useful, but it itself is no the root of all power. In many cases, wealth alone simply doesn't lead to power, nor is wealth the only function of power (even 9-11 is an example which contradicts your claim).
Why? Because it depends on how wealth
can be used within a given institutional framework. Within a given institutional framework (say, USA 1890s), if the users of x-amount of wealth discover the means to convince other individuals to wield their authority to those users' benefits, then it doesn't matter how much wealth the entire nation of uninvolved citizens have. This is the story of political capitalism and how it began in the US.
It wasn't about wealth. It was about the
use of wealth in influencing the politicians who had
the capability to enact legislation which would benefit those users (i.e. crony capitalists).
Now, all you have is the following claim: "the work that creates that wealth" is "the root of all power." But that's inaccurate because it treats
all work that creates wealth as leading to the root of power. Why? Say I open up a steel mill and hire a lot of people. Our work would create me wealth and some wealth for those workers. But where's the power? Can I force people to only buy my steel in a competitive marketplace? No, unless I can wield
state-granted power, which is what the crony capitalists did. So, it still depends on the "use of wealth" in conjunction with "politicians and bureaucrats, who wield the primary source of power through their monopolies on regulation, legislation, and the legal system.
Furthermore, in order for your claim to be true, all politicians and bureaucrats must be wealthy, "or work to create wealth," but apparently, they need not be wealthy since they can trade state-mandated priveleges in exchange for wealth. Wealth, nor the "working to creating wealth" are the root of power. Power lies in the ability of the State through its monopoly on the use of force, so that it can enforce its legislation and regulations.
Therefore, you're absolutely wrong. The root of the necessary power lies within the government, which has cooperated with certain economic interest groups, who in turn receive state-granted privileges and also influence public policy in their favor. The fundamental constrain on crony capitalism is the authority of the State, which you continue to appeal to for erroneous reasons; however, since the State is susceptible to economic interest groups and since the State fails in constraining itself, then the result will be crony capitalism/political capitalism.
You adhere to the nirvana fallacy. The government does not fulfill your good intentions for it is run by humans, corruptible by humans, and oversees its own monopolies. It's a rigged system bound to cave into the demands of crony capitalists, who can't or refuse to compete in the freer market arena.
PLAYER57832 wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:Player57832 wrote: So, what we are seeing is not an expansion of government overreach, no matter how much the right wing tries to make that claim, but a reduction in the power of the government compared to the power of corporations.
When increasing government expenditures and bureaucracies and scope of authority in the monopolized legal system no longer count as "expansion of government overreach," then there's not much that can be rationally drawn from any debate with player on this topic. Of course, she'll redefine "power" as to fit her worldview, and then when I counter that, or ask for clarification, she'll redefine it and/or go on a tangent. It would be a slippery slope from logic with that one.
LOL.. LOL...LOL
Nice try, but no. That a government controls the legal system is a hallmark of a government that functions, not as you claim "government expansion". Without the rule of law, upheld by the government, all you have is bribes and graft. Other systems might exist temporarily, but descend quickly.
Since you provided no evidence to the contrary, then your claim "what we are seeing is not an expansion of government overreach" remains false. Of course, you've changed the definition (which remains unclear to the outside observer of your mind) of "government expansion" and if you didn't (somehow), then your failure to defend your viewpoint would so far make your position false. But hey, as far as you perceive, you'll continue to be correct even though you ignore actual definitions of words and fail to address opposing arguments. That was easy.
Also, this is false: "T
hat a government controls the legal system is a hallmark of a government that functions."
1. The dictator of Zimbabwe and his government control the legal system.
2. A hallmark of a government that functions is one which controls the legal system.
3. Therefore, (according to PLAYERIAN logic), Zimbabwe is "a hallmark of a government that functions."
-----> WHOOPS
Also, this is false: "
[i]Without the rule of law, upheld by the government, all you have is bribes and graft[/i]."
Customary law can uphold the rule of law and does not require a government. Bribes and graft exists in both social orders, so that phrase is irrelevant.
Everything you just said has been shown to be false. I expect an irrational/illogical response to follow.