Technically, no, because the state is not mandating that they are the only one able to sell the idea, they are saying that the person has ownership of the idea and therefore control of it. Ownership is actually more restrictive than a monopoly, but also differs because it is not about the sales, it is about all aspects.BigBallinStalin wrote:PLAYER57832 wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:PLAYER57832 wrote:/ wrote: 2. In a free market society, there would be no patent, all information would be free use, and the victor would be determined by outmaneuvering your competition.
Interesting, because most people would say that patents are part of what allows a free market, else no one has incentive to invest time and energy in developing new ideas.
They aren't. Patents are state-granted monopolies,
No, they are state-granted property rights. Why is that different from any other property right? All rights to property are either enforced or not by the state. When its "not" we have anarchy, not markets.
(1) Player, patents are state-granted monopolies. Only person A can produce patented-product X, and it is illegal for others to produce that patented-product X (without of course person A's consent). This is the definition of a monopoly. It is state-granted monopoly because patents are granted and enforced through the state's legal system. Therefore, patents are state-granted monopolies.
Also, in the real world, all anyone has to do is create a similar type thing and get a brand new patent.
I think you have that backwards. Property rights involve more than just the ability to sell. Also, patents can be issued to multiple entities (corporations, for example).BigBallinStalin wrote:"Why is that different from any other property right?"Because not all property rights are monopolies, nor are all property rights granted by the state to particular owners.
BigBallinStalin wrote:"All rights to property are either enforced or not by the state."
Actually, property rights can be enforced by the State or by non-state groups/individuals (like you and me) simultaneously or at different times.
Only if the state or governmental authority allows. In Cuba, there is no such right. We expect it, demand it, consider it our right, and it is protected by the constitution, but it is not an inherent concept.
BigBallinStalin wrote:"When its "not" we have anarchy, not markets."
No, this is simply false. Markets can exist in anarchy, and anarchy is the absence of a State. Anarchy is not the absence of rules or laws though. If you disagree, then you're most likely mistaking "anarchy" for "chaos," which are disparate concepts.
No, establishment of property rights, whether individual or state-held or even communal is one of the most fundamental purposes of the state. Without property, there is no market.
BigBallinStalin wrote:Your premises and conclusion are all false; therefore, your argument is not sound. (I'm not even sure if it was valid; it was kind of all over the place).
Rather, you disagree, but my argument and definitions are quite sound.
BigBallinStalin wrote:If you disagree with the above, then define "monopoly," "state-granted," "anarchy," "markets," and "property rights" using a legitimate source because judging from the reasons for your disagreeing (and previous history), it is doubtful that you alone possess the requisite knowledge to be a trustworthy source.
LOL.. becuase any source that agrees with me will automatically be considered "not trustworthy" no matter how acclaimed by independent sources, cited by peer reviewed references or any other standard other than your own personal opinion.
I have provided you what you ask, you dismiss the hardest evidence as blithely as you do any opinion, so I am not longer bothering.
BigBallinStalin wrote:(2) Anyway, "I'm [still] interested in knowing Who exactly says this and why they continue to mistake today's economic system with a free market system."
That's something you ignored. If you don't explain who your source is (yourself?), and why they continue to mistake today's economic system for a free market system, then how can I know that your source actually has the authority to discuss economics and politics regarding patents?
I asked you a question, obviously you refuse to answer.
Just don't pretend you are the one doing the asking.
BigBallinStalin wrote:PLAYER57832 wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:but I'm interested in knowing Who exactly says this and why they continue to mistake today's economic system with a free market system.
The underlined may be true, but a future without patent laws is simply uncertain. You could examine the change of patent time-lengths and compare that to the number of patents, but there's several problems with that analysis, which I'm not sure if you care about. Besides, it's off-topic, so please make a thread about it.
I think you rather need to study the history of our country and why patents were begun. You would be surprised.
AND.. I make no pretense that patents today are fulfilling those initial desires/needs truly. I say that the above is truly why they were initially created. Capitalists found ways to subvert that.
If you strike the word "capitalist" and put in "greedy powerful individuals" or even just "those at the top",then you have how just about every system humans envision get destroyed, including the free market. Most particularly the free market.
Okay. That in no way answered my questions (see #2).
Yeah, actually, I did. But I gave you the route to the answer, rather than spoon-feeding it to you.











































