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bedub1 wrote:John Below #1 works a normal 40 hours a week job, earns 50k a year. He get's taxed at a 25% tax rate.
Jane Blows #2 works a long 50 hours a week job, earning 150k a year. She get's taxed at a 28% tax rate.
Joe Blow #3 works his ass off, 60 hours a week, does damn good for himself, and ends up making 400k a year. He get's taxed at a 35% tax rate.
Mr Rich does nothing all year but party, relax on the beach, and snort blow. He makes 3.5 million dollars due to his fat stack of cash. He gets taxed at a 15% tax rate.
This seems completely backwards. Shouldn't Mr Rich get taxed at a %50 tax rate?

























bedub1 wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:No because it's misleading to state that Mr. Rich "does nothing but party." His saving and consumption decisions affect others.
Irrelevant. Everybody's savings and consumption decisions affect others. The fact is Mr. Rich isn't working. He doesn't have a job.

























zimmah wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:bedub1 wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:No because it's misleading to state that Mr. Rich "does nothing but party." His saving and consumption decisions affect others.
Irrelevant. Everybody's savings and consumption decisions affect others. The fact is Mr. Rich isn't working. He doesn't have a job.
Does consuming and saving some mix of $1 billion dollars affect others more than consuming and saving a grand total of $10?
the point is that the extremely rich people do not consume, that is what's killing the economy. the stockpiling of money by a small minority hurts the majority.

























Phatscotty wrote:bedub1 wrote:John Below #1 works a normal 40 hours a week job, earns 50k a year. He get's taxed at a 25% tax rate.
Jane Blows #2 works a long 50 hours a week job, earning 150k a year. She get's taxed at a 28% tax rate.
Joe Blow #3 works his ass off, 60 hours a week, does damn good for himself, and ends up making 400k a year. He get's taxed at a 35% tax rate.
Mr Rich does nothing all year but party, relax on the beach, and snort blow. He makes 3.5 million dollars due to his fat stack of cash. He gets taxed at a 15% tax rate.
This seems completely backwards. Shouldn't Mr Rich get taxed at a %50 tax rate?
If Mr. Rich doesn't work....why would he pay income taxes???? Is this how we should treat our retirees?
Maugena wrote:Phatscotty wrote:bedub1 wrote:John Below #1 works a normal 40 hours a week job, earns 50k a year. He get's taxed at a 25% tax rate.
Jane Blows #2 works a long 50 hours a week job, earning 150k a year. She get's taxed at a 28% tax rate.
Joe Blow #3 works his ass off, 60 hours a week, does damn good for himself, and ends up making 400k a year. He get's taxed at a 35% tax rate.
Mr Rich does nothing all year but party, relax on the beach, and snort blow. He makes 3.5 million dollars due to his fat stack of cash. He gets taxed at a 15% tax rate.
This seems completely backwards. Shouldn't Mr Rich get taxed at a %50 tax rate?
If Mr. Rich doesn't work....why would he pay income taxes???? Is this how we should treat our retirees?
Should money be able to earn itself?

























Maugena wrote:Phatscotty wrote:bedub1 wrote:John Below #1 works a normal 40 hours a week job, earns 50k a year. He get's taxed at a 25% tax rate.
Jane Blows #2 works a long 50 hours a week job, earning 150k a year. She get's taxed at a 28% tax rate.
Joe Blow #3 works his ass off, 60 hours a week, does damn good for himself, and ends up making 400k a year. He get's taxed at a 35% tax rate.
Mr Rich does nothing all year but party, relax on the beach, and snort blow. He makes 3.5 million dollars due to his fat stack of cash. He gets taxed at a 15% tax rate.
This seems completely backwards. Shouldn't Mr Rich get taxed at a %50 tax rate?
If Mr. Rich doesn't work....why would he pay income taxes???? Is this how we should treat our retirees?
Should money be able to earn itself?

















Night Strike wrote:PLAYER57832 wrote:Dukasaur wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:No because it's misleading to state that Mr. Rich "does nothing but party." His saving and consumption decisions affect others.
Consumption
Mr Rich adds to the economy of producers and consumers of that beach. His parties also contribute, as does his spending on cocaine. Taxing him takes money from the producers of alcohol, parties, tourist attractions, the transportation of these related goods (and the tourists), airlines, cars, the cocaine producers and distributors, etc. etc. etc.
You miss all the transactions which he creates within many markets.
Wrong. He creates nothing. You're committing the (very common) error of ignoring Say's Law.
Production equals consumption -- that is not negotiable. Since there are no practical limits to consumption, but there are practical limits to production, the latter is the only defining variable.
Inherited wealth is mortmain. It really makes no difference if Mr. Rich spends the money on caviar and cocaine himself, or if the governement taxes it all away, distributes it to welfare mothers in the Bronx, and they spend it all on caviar and cocaine. Economically there's no difference between parasites who inherited their unearned wealth and parasites who get it in the form of a monthly cheque.
You miss a couple of facts. The wealthy actually don't spend proportional amounts of their income. They tend to invest and save more than those with lesser incomes. They might spend more in absolute terms, but not proportionally. Giving $50,000 to 100 people in wages will spur the economy FAR more than giving 5,000,000 to one person.
So investments and savings (in a bank or other entity) don't lead to economic growth?
















Maugena wrote:Phatscotty wrote:bedub1 wrote:John Below #1 works a normal 40 hours a week job, earns 50k a year. He get's taxed at a 25% tax rate.
Jane Blows #2 works a long 50 hours a week job, earning 150k a year. She get's taxed at a 28% tax rate.
Joe Blow #3 works his ass off, 60 hours a week, does damn good for himself, and ends up making 400k a year. He get's taxed at a 35% tax rate.
Mr Rich does nothing all year but party, relax on the beach, and snort blow. He makes 3.5 million dollars due to his fat stack of cash. He gets taxed at a 15% tax rate.
This seems completely backwards. Shouldn't Mr Rich get taxed at a %50 tax rate?
If Mr. Rich doesn't work....why would he pay income taxes???? Is this how we should treat our retirees?
Should money be able to earn itself?
















BigBallinStalin wrote:Dukasaur wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:No because it's misleading to state that Mr. Rich "does nothing but party." His saving and consumption decisions affect others.
Consumption
Mr Rich adds to the economy of producers and consumers of that beach. His parties also contribute, as does his spending on cocaine. Taxing him takes money from the producers of alcohol, parties, tourist attractions, the transportation of these related goods (and the tourists), airlines, cars, the cocaine producers and distributors, etc. etc. etc.
You miss all the transactions which he creates within many markets.
Wrong. He creates nothing. You're committing the (very common) error of ignoring Say's Law.
Production equals consumption -- that is not negotiable. Since there are no practical limits to consumption, but there are practical limits to production, the latter is the only defining variable.
How can he create nothing if his money was exchanged for bonds, stocks, or investments in capital and equipment?
BigBallinStalin wrote:How can he create nothing if his money is exchanged for an airline ticket to the beach?
BigBallinStalin wrote:Let's use your logic: if you see a voluntary exchange, you'll say, "nothing was created! and never mind the mutual gain!," i.e. the additional capture of value from the exchange ex-ante. You're not making any sense. Clearly, value was created for both parties of the voluntary exchange ex-ante; otherwise, why would they trade if they didn't expect to gain additional value?
BigBallinStalin wrote:Say's Law
To simply sum it up it's "supply creates its own demand," but this isn't all of it.
An individual can either consume or save. There's a balance between the two. Curtailing present consumption leads to an increase in savings. This signals to producers to restrict their current production and prepare for an increase in future production. In this sense, "production equals consumption," but this is over time. It isn't instantaneous, and that's what you missed.
Production doesn't equal consumption.
Dukasaur wrote:Inherited wealth is mortmain. It really makes no difference if Mr. Rich spends the money on caviar and cocaine himself, or if the governement taxes it all away, distributes it to welfare mothers in the Bronx, and they spend it all on caviar and cocaine. Economically there's no difference between parasites who inherited their unearned wealth and parasites who get it in the form of a monthly cheque.
BigBallinStalin wrote:Yes, there's a difference between public spenders and private spenders. There's totally different incentives at play! By saying they're the same, you're arguing that political and bureaucratic incentives are the exact same as profit and loss incentives. But they aren't, and I hope you can see that.
BigBallinStalin wrote:How can you say that their wealth is unearned? It was a voluntary, legal transfer of ownership rights. If that's unearned, then any gift you received is unearned. There's a difference between receiving property voluntarily from someone who dies and receiving property that was coerced from others through taxation.
BigBallinStalin wrote:Think about it. Economically, yes, there's a huge difference. :/






























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Dukusaur wrote:I said nothing of the kind.

















Dukasaur wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:Dukasaur wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:No because it's misleading to state that Mr. Rich "does nothing but party." His saving and consumption decisions affect others.
Consumption
Mr Rich adds to the economy of producers and consumers of that beach. His parties also contribute, as does his spending on cocaine. Taxing him takes money from the producers of alcohol, parties, tourist attractions, the transportation of these related goods (and the tourists), airlines, cars, the cocaine producers and distributors, etc. etc. etc.
You miss all the transactions which he creates within many markets.
Wrong. He creates nothing. You're committing the (very common) error of ignoring Say's Law.
Production equals consumption -- that is not negotiable. Since there are no practical limits to consumption, but there are practical limits to production, the latter is the only defining variable.
How can he create nothing if his money was exchanged for bonds, stocks, or investments in capital and equipment?
One of the key lessons that teachers of investment fundamentals struggle to teach is that "the stock doesn't care who owns it."
If Mr. Rich owns 100 shares of Microsoft and decides to give them to you, is there any net gain or loss for Microsoft? Absolutely none. It's a common saying that the stock market is an essential venue for companies to raise investment financing, but while being true that saying is somewhat misleading. The only thing that provides investment capital to the businesses is the Initial sale of the stock. Once the stock has left that stage and entered the churning maelstrom of the stock market, there is no further gain to the company.
Now, remember, one of the initial parameters laid out in the OP is that Mr. Rich does not work. He is a pampered layabout who inherited his wealth. If he was a venture capitalist, doing research on products and ideas and funneling his money into various ventures then yes, he would be providing further gains to the economy. But that would be changing the parameters of this thread. The dissolute nature of Mr. Rich is one of our bounding parameters. Mr. Rich Sr., the grandfather worked his ass off, made a pile of money, and put it into stocks which Mr. Rich III eventually inherited. He lays on the beach while investment advisors churn his account, moving it from one stock to another.

















Maugena wrote:I understand you're quite educated when it comes to economics, BBS, so please, be gentle with me. :S
My thought at the moment is this...
There are many broken aspects of our current system, but one part that I feel should be completely eliminated is:
Borrowing and loaning.
It is a falsehood to say that loaning creates money. It does not. It merely reallocates a medium to another person with the assumption that it will be paid back in full, with interest. This method claims to say that the person that had initially saved the money still has claim to what they had put away despite it technically being gone. It's completely illegitimate. I'm honestly dumbfounded as to why we still have this. I understand that some people may need services or products that they may not be able to pay for currently and it may or may not be their fault for their predicament, but in the end it only benefits the people in need and the people making these illegitimate deals. It might be a bit much (okay, I'll give in and say it IS too much) to say that people should just be given what they need if they absolutely must have it, but debts should not be incurred. (I think to myself briefly about how it seems every single nation is in some kind of debt... which does not seem possible-shouldn't there be a balance for all the negative? Where is it, assuming it does exist?)
Maugena wrote:Anyway, I think based on my unprofessional, uneducated opinion, that all wealth derives directly from resources and the physical manifestation of ideas, or products.
I think that all people of a land should have some claim to resources, being a part of the nation, so that they may make a profit with it. The claims should be split equally amongst the entire population. There should also be no inheritance.
/incoherentrant
Well yeah, I think that's all I can muster for now. Fire away, BBS! ;P

















Lootifer wrote:This thread is awful.





































BigBallinStalin wrote:Maugena wrote:I understand you're quite educated when it comes to economics, BBS, so please, be gentle with me. :S
My thought at the moment is this...
There are many broken aspects of our current system, but one part that I feel should be completely eliminated is:
Borrowing and loaning.
It is a falsehood to say that loaning creates money. It does not. It merely reallocates a medium to another person with the assumption that it will be paid back in full, with interest. This method claims to say that the person that had initially saved the money still has claim to what they had put away despite it technically being gone. It's completely illegitimate. I'm honestly dumbfounded as to why we still have this. I understand that some people may need services or products that they may not be able to pay for currently and it may or may not be their fault for their predicament, but in the end it only benefits the people in need and the people making these illegitimate deals. It might be a bit much (okay, I'll give in and say it IS too much) to say that people should just be given what they need if they absolutely must have it, but debts should not be incurred. (I think to myself briefly about how it seems every single nation is in some kind of debt... which does not seem possible-shouldn't there be a balance for all the negative? Where is it, assuming it does exist?)
I don't understand the underlined... here's an example of borrowing and lending:
Mary wants to borrow $1,000. Bob lends Mary $1,000 for one year with an interest of 10% compounded annually. So, after one year, Mary must pay Bob $1,100. Mary then pays the amount owed. What's illegitimate with this?
















BigBallinStalin wrote:Maugena wrote:I understand you're quite educated when it comes to economics, BBS, so please, be gentle with me. :S
My thought at the moment is this...
There are many broken aspects of our current system, but one part that I feel should be completely eliminated is:
Borrowing and loaning.
It is a falsehood to say that loaning creates money. It does not. It merely reallocates a medium to another person with the assumption that it will be paid back in full, with interest. This method claims to say that the person that had initially saved the money still has claim to what they had put away despite it technically being gone. It's completely illegitimate. I'm honestly dumbfounded as to why we still have this. I understand that some people may need services or products that they may not be able to pay for currently and it may or may not be their fault for their predicament, but in the end it only benefits the people in need and the people making these illegitimate deals. It might be a bit much (okay, I'll give in and say it IS too much) to say that people should just be given what they need if they absolutely must have it, but debts should not be incurred. (I think to myself briefly about how it seems every single nation is in some kind of debt... which does not seem possible-shouldn't there be a balance for all the negative? Where is it, assuming it does exist?)
I don't understand the underlined... here's an example of borrowing and lending:
Mary wants to borrow $1,000. Bob lends Mary $1,000 for one year with an interest of 10% compounded annually. So, after one year, Mary must pay Bob $1,100. Mary then pays the amount owed. What's illegitimate with this?
















BigBallinStalin wrote:I buy gardening equipment, and for $30 I'll mow Maugena's lawn. We agree to this, and I perform the service. Maguena's satisfied, I'm satisfied. I go home, I have my $30, and I subtract my expenses for mowing that lawn: -$5. I earned $25 profit. Why must some portion of my profit be taken from me and distributed among others?
The equipment is mine. I bought it. I sought out customers, and engaged in voluntary exchanges with them. This is all performed by me. Then Maguena expects my services to be worth the $30; therefore, he gives me $30, and he's satisfied after the work is done. Why do other people have a claim to my profits? Who has a claim to my lawnmower? Who has a claim to my own efforts?


























































BigBallinStalin wrote:Maugena wrote:I understand you're quite educated when it comes to economics, BBS, so please, be gentle with me. :S
My thought at the moment is this...
There are many broken aspects of our current system, but one part that I feel should be completely eliminated is:
Borrowing and loaning.
It is a falsehood to say that loaning creates money. It does not. It merely reallocates a medium to another person with the assumption that it will be paid back in full, with interest. This method claims to say that the person that had initially saved the money still has claim to what they had put away despite it technically being gone. It's completely illegitimate. I'm honestly dumbfounded as to why we still have this. I understand that some people may need services or products that they may not be able to pay for currently and it may or may not be their fault for their predicament, but in the end it only benefits the people in need and the people making these illegitimate deals. It might be a bit much (okay, I'll give in and say it IS too much) to say that people should just be given what they need if they absolutely must have it, but debts should not be incurred. (I think to myself briefly about how it seems every single nation is in some kind of debt... which does not seem possible-shouldn't there be a balance for all the negative? Where is it, assuming it does exist?)
I don't understand the underlined... here's an example of borrowing and lending:
Mary wants to borrow $1,000. Bob lends Mary $1,000 for one year with an interest of 10% compounded annually. So, after one year, Mary must pay Bob $1,100. Mary then pays the amount owed. What's illegitimate with this?Maugena wrote:Anyway, I think based on my unprofessional, uneducated opinion, that all wealth derives directly from resources and the physical manifestation of ideas, or products.
I think that all people of a land should have some claim to resources, being a part of the nation, so that they may make a profit with it. The claims should be split equally amongst the entire population. There should also be no inheritance.
/incoherentrant
Well yeah, I think that's all I can muster for now. Fire away, BBS! ;P
I buy gardening equipment, and for $30 I'll mow Maugena's lawn. We agree to this, and I perform the service. Maguena's satisfied, I'm satisfied. I go home, I have my $30, and I subtract my expenses for mowing that lawn: -$5. I earned $25 profit. Why must some portion of my profit be taken from me and distributed among others?
The equipment is mine. I bought it. I sought out customers, and engaged in voluntary exchanges with them. This is all performed by me. Then Maguena expects my services to be worth the $30; therefore, he gives me $30, and he's satisfied after the work is done. Why do other people have a claim to my profits? Who has a claim to my lawnmower? Who has a claim to my own efforts?
I think all citizens should be entitled to a portion of the nation's resources as a birth right so they can take it and make a living eventually. (Directly from the land.)

















BigBallinStalin wrote:Dukasaur wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:Dukasaur wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:No because it's misleading to state that Mr. Rich "does nothing but party." His saving and consumption decisions affect others.
Consumption
Mr Rich adds to the economy of producers and consumers of that beach. His parties also contribute, as does his spending on cocaine. Taxing him takes money from the producers of alcohol, parties, tourist attractions, the transportation of these related goods (and the tourists), airlines, cars, the cocaine producers and distributors, etc. etc. etc.
You miss all the transactions which he creates within many markets.
Wrong. He creates nothing. You're committing the (very common) error of ignoring Say's Law.
Production equals consumption -- that is not negotiable. Since there are no practical limits to consumption, but there are practical limits to production, the latter is the only defining variable.
How can he create nothing if his money was exchanged for bonds, stocks, or investments in capital and equipment?
One of the key lessons that teachers of investment fundamentals struggle to teach is that "the stock doesn't care who owns it."
If Mr. Rich owns 100 shares of Microsoft and decides to give them to you, is there any net gain or loss for Microsoft? Absolutely none. It's a common saying that the stock market is an essential venue for companies to raise investment financing, but while being true that saying is somewhat misleading. The only thing that provides investment capital to the businesses is the Initial sale of the stock. Once the stock has left that stage and entered the churning maelstrom of the stock market, there is no further gain to the company.
Now, remember, one of the initial parameters laid out in the OP is that Mr. Rich does not work. He is a pampered layabout who inherited his wealth. If he was a venture capitalist, doing research on products and ideas and funneling his money into various ventures then yes, he would be providing further gains to the economy. But that would be changing the parameters of this thread. The dissolute nature of Mr. Rich is one of our bounding parameters. Mr. Rich Sr., the grandfather worked his ass off, made a pile of money, and put it into stocks which Mr. Rich III eventually inherited. He lays on the beach while investment advisors churn his account, moving it from one stock to another.
So, by do nothing, you mean "he did something by hiring people to manage his money"?
This is ridiculous.
BigBallinStalin wrote:And, where's the normative?






























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