Haggis_McMutton wrote:It is a waste of time for the Wal-Mart critics to worry about average wages falling too low. Average nominal wages on an economy-wide basis will always tend towards the level of full employment. If average wages go higher or lower than this point, the market automatically works to bring them back to this level.
At any given time, there is a certain quantity of total dollars of demand for labor services by all employers in the entire economic system. Average wages at full employment will be at the level of the total amount of monetary demand for labor services divided by the total number of people who choose to sell their labor services. When the average wage rate is forced above the full employment level there is not enough total monetary demand for labor to pay all those who want to work at this higher average. If, for example, in a hypothetical small economy, the total monetary demand for labor is $1 billion, and the total number of workers seeking employment is one million, the average wage must be $1,000 to reach full employment. If the average wage is forced higher than this point — say to $2,000 — then employers could only hire 500,000 workers. Without artificial interference with average wages, such as minimum wage laws or labor union coercion, unemployed workers would outcompete the employed by accepting lower wages. If the average wage was $2,000, an unemployed person could outcompete an employed person by offering his services for $1,500. The next unemployed person could get a job by accepting $1,400. As wages fell, employers could hire more total workers. This would happen throughout the economic system until the average wage rate was back at $1,000, at which point there would be enough total monetary demand to hire all one million workers. Freedom in the labor market is all that is required to reach full employment.
It is in the self-interest of employers to keep wages from falling below the point of full employment because any lower wage would cause a shortage of labor services for employers. The lower average wage would allow employers who couldn't previously obtain employees to be able to afford them. This would leave many employers who were willing and able to pay higher wages without the employees they desired. In response to this imbalance, the employers who needed more labor services, and were willing and able to pay higher wages, would simply offer higher wages and outbid the employers who weren't able to pay the higher wages. This would happen throughout the economic system until the average wage was back up at the point of full employment.
Now I'm far from an economics authority, but this passage seems to me like it should have enough asterisks appended to make a small galaxy.
Agreed, but then most people would lose interest. Ever wonder why politicians love the neoclassical economics? It assumes the nitty-gritty away so that public policy becomes so 'clairvoyant'!
My main qualm is that aggregating Labor into one market--as they do in their example--fails to describe what actually happens in the labor market, which as we know is heterogeneous, not homogeneous (but that inconvenient fact doesn't stop nearly all econometricians from being silly).
Haggis_McMutton wrote:First thing that pops in mind: Isn't this assuming wages are completely elastic?
Well, the price of labor (a wage) can't be either elastic or inelastic. The demand and supply of labor can only vary in their elasticity.
E.g. If the demand for labor was very elastic, then a small change in price (wage) would "cause" a large change in the quantity demanded for labor--assuming that the supply of labor remains constant (ceteris parabis). If the demand was very inelastic, then a small change in price would hardly affect the quantity demanded for labor.
And, it depends on the market clearing price* of labor, which is... what exactly? (Hint: no one knows).
- *the price at which both demand and supply attain equilibrium. Oooo! <waves hands>. So, at that point there would be neither shortage (perfectly full employment) nor abundance (unemployment) of labor, which sounds impossible, right? (Right).
- In reality, equilibrium is constantly in flux, but that makes graphing it so difficult! So let's don our neoclassical econ. hats and assume it's static!* *Lootifer may go on about dynamic stochastic general equilibrium, but that's still static--even if it's superficially called "dynamic").
The underlying assumptions behind the kind of economic reasoning as seen in the OP would be disturbing to expose. Labor isn't homogenous, so the explanation can never be so simple. I'll explain more about this while answering your following questions.
Haggis_McMutton wrote: Is there not a minimum wage level under which people are unwilling to go regardless of the employment situation (because, for instance, going lower would mean they starve)?
Would all people work at such low wages? Well, it depends on how each person defines (a) their best perceived benefits of their most valuable opportunity, and (b) their opportunity cost, which is the second-most valued activity that person would rather be doing--if (a) was chosen. For example, "should I take the shit job @ $3.00 per hour, or would it be more profitable for me to simply live on the land and grow my own food"?*
- *Some call that "subsistence agriculture."
. Also, interns work at such low rates on average because they expect to earn higher later, so we have to keep in mind that individuals and their expected future streams of income can change over time.
Anyway, with the above quoted question in mind ($3.00 v. farming), when we think about this, not everyone is like that. Different people are willing to work different jobs at different wages. When we realize this, then the reasoning behind that article becomes silly (because it implicitly assumes such a fact is not true--it homogenizes the Labor market. Without assuming homogeneity, then the article would have nothing 'factual' to say about the labor market).
So I'm ripping on the basic econ. here, but basic econ. is useful in that it provides concepts which help us understand the world around us. We're exposing the limits of these concepts correctly because as we draw out its logical consistency, it frays at the edges. Nevertheless, if we were to disaggregate the labor market to more finer parts, then the same concepts would have
relatively more factually 'correct' claims to make about the specific kinds of labor markets in various places. (This is why Hayek goes on about
"the circumstances of time and place.")
Haggis_McMutton wrote:Under the assumption the article is making would it not be possible for the "full employment wage" to be something way below the poverty line?
Sure, but what kind of Labor market are we talking about here? Because obviously not everyone works the same job at the same wage. We're talking about a Labor market which we've invented in our heads. The same happens when people speak about "unemployment" and "GDP" in the economy. It's very imaginary--yet "real"--stuff.
No one really knows what the market clearing price for various labor markets is. It's just different buyers (employers) and sellers (laborers) exchanging in different markets, but if you pay me $5000 to draw up a "economic impact" report, then Hey, forget all which I've said, and let me razzle-dazzle you with all kinds of econ. alchemy.
Haggis_McMutton wrote:Second thing: This passage seems to be assuming there is only one possible equilibrium point, as if the "total demand for labour services" is some kind of cosmic constant value. In reality, aren't all these values intertwined in a complex cycle? Yes. Is it not possible, for instance, that having higher wages means people have more leisure money to spend and so there are more business opportunities to pursue to satisfy these needs and therefore more "total demand of labour services" ? It's possible.
Check out the big brain on Haggis!
So, with equilibrium, you've got various explanations about this phenomenon. Remember that in reality we're talking about individuals here, and each perceives their profit and opportunity cost (OC) subjectively. And this interpretation of profit and OC is influenced by many factors external to the individual, but each individual also filters and creates more or less his own interpretation, thus influencing that which surrounds him. So, it's a reciprocal process. People respond to prices, but they also search for a particular price among the myriad of prices (e.g. think of yourself while you shop for different items).
With that in mind, there's two basic ways to explain (dis)equilibrium:
Lachmann theorizes that within various markets, people already tend toward equilibrium, yet disequilibrium happens due to entrepreneurial activities. For example, suppose the market clearing price for alcohol is $5.00 per six pack in market A. But in market B, those bastards are selling at $7.00 per pack! We need to buy from market A and sell in market B! (arbitrage opportunity). This act of arbitrage, (a.k.a. entrepreneurship, or ability to find profitable opportunities), causes a disequilibrium among the Total Market of Alcohol.
In other words, if we were to aggregate both markets of alcohol, then we would notice a 'disturbance in the force' as some individuals engage in arbitrage. The prices and quantities in each market were fine before, but those dastardly entrepreneurs are messing it all up.
Most economists posit that it's the other way around. Entrepreneurs are the guys who correct the disequilibrium. So, before the entrepreneurs in the alcohol markets began their arbitrage, these economists would say, "those markets are in disequilibrium for there is profit to be made." The buying in market A drives up the price from $5.00 and the additional selling in market B drives down the price from $7.00 (ceteris paribus--holding all other things constant). With the prices changing, they'd say that the demanders and suppliers are tending toward the market clearing price--where demand = supply, or rather "equilibrium."
(I don't agree with Lachmann, but he's got some extremely interesting ideas).
Haggis_McMutton wrote:Is it not possible, for instance, that having higher wages means people have more leisure money to spend and so there are more business opportunities to pursue to satisfy these needs and therefore more "total demand of labour services" ? It's possible.
Right. How do people substitute between leisure and labor? Who knows. It's different for each individual. Some people hit some optimal balance between the two, and many fluctuate on that balance. It's like asking, "at what point do people reach equilibrium in regard to work and non-work?" [resinsert stuff about heterogeneity].
And sure, it's all connected, but it depends on how one 'spends' one's time. If one requires trading their earned income for leisurely goods, then there's this increased demand for more goods. If one does not require such trading, then there's no change in the demand for goods.* Then, with this increased demand for goods, the sellers need to produce more, so they'll pay for an additional mix between labor and capital.
- *(Assuming that there's only one demander in the whole world.
I'm just picking him out to show that it depends what those with more leisure do and how that affects the demand for more labor).
Haggis_McMutton wrote:I think that passage suffers from a severe case of physics envy. Unfortunately, I don't think economics will ever be that clear cut. But I'd be happy to be proved wrong.
Shit yeah, but I'm hesitant to assume that of the author. He's just using basic economics. If he were to stop himself everyone few lines, people would lose interest, so you gotta start somewhere. The problem is that hardly anyone gets around to explaining/understanding the myriad of problems with economics, which leads to greater problems:
- People believing in the political rhetoric about restoring jobs in the economy. The federal reserve is going to save us from ourselves. Deflation is terrible because hurr durr. Herp a derp derp.
In economics, there are no constants. None. Imagine trying to find the force of gravity between two bodies without plank's constant. That's what real economics is like; it's a messy social science. Now, most econometricians and neoclassical/mainstream economists will assume this dirty problem away by simplifying things to a point where they're no longer talking about the real world, but rather a world which they've invented within their minds. They're free to play in it, but it gets others hurt because politicians and public officials (mis)use it.
Can economics ever be as clear as physics? I doubt it, but who knows what the future holds for us. However, imagine trying to gather data on every exchange of labor each day for a year. But then, as soon as you aggregate it (average it), and talk about "average wage level" and "the labor market," then you're fooling yourself. Different people work different jobs at different wages, and with this in mind, nothing about economics can be so clear, but it doesn't stop people from talking about "the economy." So, on some points, I see some improvement, but with basic problems, there's a ceiling which can't be lifted.